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CIS 517 FINAL EXAM

Q1. ____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party. Q2. A project manager can chart the probability and impact of risks on a ____. Q3. Many people cite…

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Q1. ____ involves
allocating ownership of the risk to another party.
Q2. A project manager can chart the probability
and impact of risks on a ____.
Q3. Many people cite
research that says in a face-to-face interaction, ____ percent of communication
is through body language.
Q4. ___ involves building individual and group
skills to enhance project performance.
Q5. The ____ ultimately
decides if quality is acceptable.
Q6. Those who are ____ have
a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff
is at stake.
Q7. Since information
technology projects often require a lot of coordination, it is a good idea to
have ____ meetings.
Q8. Psychologist David
Merril describes ____ as reactive and people-oriented.
Q9. _____ involve
estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a
project total.
Q10 – ___ involves shifting
the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third
party.
Q11. _____ involves
eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes.
Q12. The main outputs of ____ are a quality
management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement
plan, and project document updates.
Q13. ____ includes the processes required to
ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget.
Q14. ____ describe where
the project stands at a specific point in time.
Q15. _______ are often more effective,
particularly for sensitive information.
Q16. The ____ is an
estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to
date.
Q17. People who believe in
____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid
responsibility.
Q18. KLCI Research Group’s
2001 survey revealed that the most frequently cited benefit from software risk
management practices is to ____.
Q19. The communications
management plan can be part of the team ____.
Q20. Utility rises at a
decreasing rate for a ____ person.
Q21. With a(n) ____
contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a
fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs.
Q22. Many practitioners
define project success as ____.
Q23. ____, with assistance
from financial experts in their organizations, should create estimates of the
costs and benefits of the project for its entire life cycle.
Q24. ____ helps integrate
traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals
and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of
reference for appraising current processes.
Q25. A(n) ____ might
provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project
based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise
of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on.
Q26. In any normal
distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard
deviations of the mean.
Q27. People with a high
need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to
feel accepted by others.
Q28. The Standish Group’s
CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects
ranged from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2004.
Q29. Since organizations
depend on reliable information technology, there are also huge costs associated
with ____.
Q30. ____ are/is a
qualitative risk analysis tool, and in addition to identifying risks, it
maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project.
Q31. In the MBTI, the ____
dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information.
Q32. According to the
guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only
method that is “excellent” for encouraging creative thinking.
Q33 . A(n) ____ is a
document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers.
Q34. A certainty factor of
1.960 is used for ____ percent desired certainty.
Q35. Juran’s final step to
quality improvement is ____.
processes of the company
Q36. According to the
guideline governing ____, many meetings are most effective with the minimum
number of participants possible.
Q37. KLCI Research Group’s
2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the participants said they had
procedures in place to identify and assess risk.
Q38. A(n) ____ is a
diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in
situations in which future outcomes are uncertain.
Q39. Variances are
calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____.
Q40. Research indicates
that project managers favor using ____ for conflict resolution over the other
four modes.
Q41. “Organizations can
gain access to specific skills and technologies when they are required by using
outside resources.” refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing.
Q42. As the number of
people involved in a project ___, the complexity of communications ____.
Q43. Some items discussed
in a(n) ____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the
project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the
reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project
management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team
members’ experiences.
Q44. ____ involves getting
the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project
Q45. ___ issues cause the
most conflicts over the project life cycle.
Q46. One of ____ ten steps
states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity
for improvement.
Q47. ___ involves
developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to
complete a project.
Q48. In the Tuckman model,
____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than
working on team process.
Q49. ___ describe what the
project team has accomplished during a certain period.
Q50. With a(n) ____
contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along
with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus.

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